Sunday, December 4, 2011

Would universal balance mean all imbalance is relative to what is finite and determinate?

Would universal imbalance mean that all balance is relative to what is finite and determinate?





Are neither of these the case because universal balance and universal imbalance coexist, or is balance itself only relative to what is finite and determinate? Are the forces of chaos and law equal and balanced, or are they so diametrically different that they are not balanced?





I use the word balance in the metaphysical sense to mean a point between two or more dissimilar forces that is desirable over having one state being more central and powerful than any other.|||2nd Law of Thermodynamics states that entropy (disorder) always increases. Therefor it seems that there is no universal equilibrium when it comes to the forces of chaos and law. And yes, you make a good point in that they are diametrically different to the point of, perhaps, being incompatible to comparison.|||Yes, reality is truth, actuality is existence (includes ignorance).|||Sure. %26lt;shrug%26gt;|||2 + 2 = 5





The universe and all we know is what we are taught...and what we know from our discourse and our government...|||Perception is everything...


especially in the metaphysical realm


one persons balance is another's imbalance


what one thinks as desirable another thinks is crazy.


so.. what is balance, power ..? It is our perception


Even in the One Mind of us all perception allows us our own style, own freedom

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